In slander per se, which statement is true?

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Multiple Choice

In slander per se, which statement is true?

Explanation:
When a statement qualifies as slander per se, damages are presumed. Certain defamatory statements are so obviously harmful (imputing a crime, professional incompetence, loathsome disease, or sexual misconduct) that the law treats injury as automatic. So the plaintiff doesn’t have to prove actual damages or plead special damages to recover; mere publication of a false, per-se statement is enough to establish liability. The other statements clash with this presumption: you don’t need to prove damages, damages aren’t never presumed, and you don’t have to sue separately for damages.

When a statement qualifies as slander per se, damages are presumed. Certain defamatory statements are so obviously harmful (imputing a crime, professional incompetence, loathsome disease, or sexual misconduct) that the law treats injury as automatic. So the plaintiff doesn’t have to prove actual damages or plead special damages to recover; mere publication of a false, per-se statement is enough to establish liability. The other statements clash with this presumption: you don’t need to prove damages, damages aren’t never presumed, and you don’t have to sue separately for damages.

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